Originally posted by rkellysunsfan
No, absolutely not. I'm saying that she must've gone into Kobe's room with some kind of intention doing something sexually. Why else would the two, who had been talking together in a public place, go into a private room?
The point I was making is, let's say that she went into Kobe's room to hook up with him, and didn't want to go as far as having sex. She's a 19 year old small-town girl, so that would certainly not be out of the question. The let's say that Kobe wanted to have sex with her, and she said no it didn't feel right, but being drunk and already sexually aroused, Kobe decided that her saying no didn't matter, he was going to get what he wanted, and there was nothing she could say or do to make him stop. That all seems believable.
The problem I have is that it is believable assuming this girl's morals are good because if they were not, then I wouldn't put it past her to have sex with Kobe and then cry rape to get money (it happens all the time). I was saying that if her morals were good, however, she would not have put her into a position of even kissing a married man. Kobe committed the sin of adultery, which many of you use as a reason for it being possible that he could've raped her. You say that if is a bad enough person to commit adultery, why would he stop there; why would he not rape her?
So I'm in return acknoledging that line of reasoning somewhat, and saying this: if this 19-year old girl is a bad enough person to flirt with a married man, and most likely consensually hook up with him, then why would SHE stop there; why would she not have consensual sex with him, and then cry rape in order to receive millions of dollars from a professional athlete? Fact is, there's a good chance that even if Kobe's not convicted of rape, she could still receive enough money in a plea bargain or through a civil court to be set for life.