Cards_Campos
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- Nov 4, 2007
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Please someone here give me a logical explanation for the Patriots to have been given the ball last night on the Colts onside kick.
Not one time during that process did the Patriots even have possession of the ball. How could the REFS give the ball to the Patriots when A the COlt guy had the ball when they uncovered everyone and 2 the replays showed the ball squirting out and the Dude from the COlts who had the ball at the end ....landed on the ball!?!?!?! How can you ever give that ball to the Patriots and how was that play so brushed under the rug?!?! Not one explanation other than they couldnt prove from the replay BULL%^%$ The guy who had the ball at the end was clearly seen landing all the ball when it squirted out on replay. What braniac needed more information???? Its the Patriots and they get BS calls and the REFS help them because you can't logically explain that. Because not 1 time did it look like a Patriot had it!!
Not one time during that process did the Patriots even have possession of the ball. How could the REFS give the ball to the Patriots when A the COlt guy had the ball when they uncovered everyone and 2 the replays showed the ball squirting out and the Dude from the COlts who had the ball at the end ....landed on the ball!?!?!?! How can you ever give that ball to the Patriots and how was that play so brushed under the rug?!?! Not one explanation other than they couldnt prove from the replay BULL%^%$ The guy who had the ball at the end was clearly seen landing all the ball when it squirted out on replay. What braniac needed more information???? Its the Patriots and they get BS calls and the REFS help them because you can't logically explain that. Because not 1 time did it look like a Patriot had it!!